“I will have a cup of tea” my father said “because I’m not hungry.” Which one is the correct indirect speech? ?
Explanation
1. Tense Change: In indirect speech, verbs typically shift tense. The original "will" becomes "would" in indirect speech, reflecting the future intention expressed in the past.
2. Pronoun Adjustment: The pronoun "I" changes to "he" to represent the father being spoken about, which is consistent with standard practices in indirect speech.
3. Maintaining the Reasoning: The clause "because I'm not hungry" must also be transformed in a way that maintains its meaning. Here is the key mistake: instead of "has not hungry," the correct form should be "was not hungry," as "not hungry" describes a state that aligns with the past context.
Therefore, while option B captures some correct elements, it's imperfect. The best indirect speech would actually be: "My father said that he would have a cup of tea because he was not hungry." Thus, option B is incorrect in grammar, having made a mistake in the state of hunger.
In summary, option B is partially correct regarding the "would" tense, but it inaccurately represents the past state indicated by "not hungry," which should have been put in past tense as "was not hungry." None of the options provided are fully correct, underlining the importance of careful attention to both tense and the fidelity of meaning in reported speech.
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